For 2a, it should say "expressed as a sum of products of up to k of f's Fourier coefficients".
Thanks to Jonah for pointing this out.
Wednesday, April 30, 2008
Tuesday, April 29, 2008
Clarification on HW6
Ok, yeah, part (b) was super-vague, sorry about that. Here is a more precise question, I think.
Consider the matrix $M_2(y)$; if this is psd, then we know, e.g., that $y_{abcd}$ can be written as the dot product of vectors $z_{ab}$ and $z_{cd}$, and also as the dot products of vectors $z_{bc}$ and $z_{ad}$ etc. Similarly $y_{ab}$ can be written as $z_{a}$ dot $z_b$, and also as $z_{ab}$ dot $z_\emptyset$. Hence we now have these vectors $z$'s, each subscripted by at most two vertices, with some constraints relating them.
The goal of the problem is to show that the SDP $Q_1(K_{VC})$ is at least as strong as a natural vertex cover SDP, which assigns a vector $v_i$ to each node $i$ to minimize $\sum_i v_i \cdot v_i$ subject to
Does your SDP also imply the triangle inequalities:
Consider the matrix $M_2(y)$; if this is psd, then we know, e.g., that $y_{abcd}$ can be written as the dot product of vectors $z_{ab}$ and $z_{cd}$, and also as the dot products of vectors $z_{bc}$ and $z_{ad}$ etc. Similarly $y_{ab}$ can be written as $z_{a}$ dot $z_b$, and also as $z_{ab}$ dot $z_\emptyset$. Hence we now have these vectors $z$'s, each subscripted by at most two vertices, with some constraints relating them.
The goal of the problem is to show that the SDP $Q_1(K_{VC})$ is at least as strong as a natural vertex cover SDP, which assigns a vector $v_i$ to each node $i$ to minimize $\sum_i v_i \cdot v_i$ subject to
- $(v_\emptyset - v_a)(v_\emptyset - v_b) = 0$ for all edges $ab$.
- $v_\emptyset \cdot v_\emptyset = 1$ (say).
Does your SDP also imply the triangle inequalities:
- $||v_a - v_b||^2 + ||v_b - v_c||^2 \geq ||v_a - v_c||^2$?
Monday, April 28, 2008
Course evaluation time...
Hi all: when you get a chance, could you go to https://my.cmu.edu/site/main/page.academics and give yr feedback on the course. thanks!
Sunday, April 27, 2008
Integrality Gaps for Sparsest Cut
A quick comment about the sparsest cut integrality gaps we saw last time, and the connection to the dual. (BTW, the notes for Lec 27 are up, thanks Varun!)
In Lecture 27, the arguments for the gaps went thus: at least $k$ of the demands need to travel through $p$ edges in the network, hence sending $\tau$ fraction of each unit demand uses $\tau \cdot k \cdot p$ volume. And since we dealt with unit capacities, there was only $m$ volume in the network, hence the maximum concurrent flow is at most $m/(pk)$. For the 5-node example, $p=2$, $k=4$ and $m=6$; for the expander, $k = \Omega(n^2)$, $p = \Omega(\log n)$, and $m = O(n)$.
But suppose we are more sophisticated:
What we have just proved is weak LP-duality for the case of sparsest cut. The fact that $\tau^*$ equals $\lambda^*$ is given by strong duality.
In Lecture 27, the arguments for the gaps went thus: at least $k$ of the demands need to travel through $p$ edges in the network, hence sending $\tau$ fraction of each unit demand uses $\tau \cdot k \cdot p$ volume. And since we dealt with unit capacities, there was only $m$ volume in the network, hence the maximum concurrent flow is at most $m/(pk)$. For the 5-node example, $p=2$, $k=4$ and $m=6$; for the expander, $k = \Omega(n^2)$, $p = \Omega(\log n)$, and $m = O(n)$.
But suppose we are more sophisticated:
- Suppose we assign lengths $d_e$ to each edge $e$, so that the shortest path according to these edge lengths from $i$ to $j$ is now $d_{ij}$. Think of each of the edges $(i,j)$ as pipes with capacity $C_{ij}$ and length $d_{ij}$.
- Now if the pair $ij$ sends $\tau D_{ij}$ flow, each unit of flow must travel $d_{ij}$ distance. Hence the total volume used by this pair is $\tau D_{ij} \cdot d_{ij}$. And the total volume used is $\sum_{ij} \tau \cdot D_{ij} \cdot d_{ij}$.
- But the total volume in the network is now $\sum_{(i,j) \in E} C_{ij} d_{ij}$.
What we have just proved is weak LP-duality for the case of sparsest cut. The fact that $\tau^*$ equals $\lambda^*$ is given by strong duality.
Monday, April 21, 2008
Hardness of Independent Set
I wanted to say a few more things about the hardness of Max-Independent-Set (equivalently, Min-Vertex-Cover). Recall that in Lecture 25, we sketched the proof of factor $1/n^{1-\epsilon}$ NP-hardness for this problem; specifically, Hastad's result shows that distinguishing $1/n^{\epsilon}$ vs. $1/n^{1-\epsilon}$ is NP-hard for all $\epsilon > 0$.
This is a great hardness factor, but (as they used to say) "the gap is in the wrong place" -- or at least, it's not in the strongest possible place. It is of great interest to try to obtain a hardness result of the form $\Omega(1)$ vs. $o(1)$. This will give a worse "factor", but the result is essentially stronger. Note that we can't hope for $\Omega(1)$ vs. $1/n^{1-\epsilon}$ NP-hardness; Boppana and Halldorsson showed, roughly, that $1/k$ vs. $1/n^{(k-2)/(k-1)}$ is in P (using Ramsey theory) and this was improved by Alon and Kahale to, roughly, $1/k$ vs. $1/n^{(k-2)/(k+1)}$, using the Karger-Motwani-Sudan SDP coloring algorithm.
One reason hardness results like $\Omega(1)$ vs. "small" are better is that they better "factor" hardness for Min-Vertex-Cover. Recall that, trivially, a $c$ vs. $s$ hardness result for Min-Independent-Set is a $1-c$ vs. $1 - s$ hardness result for Max-Vertex-Cover, and thus a $(1-s)/(1-c)$-factor hardness for Max-Vertex-Cover. For example, Hastad's hardness gives only $1+o(1)$ factor hardness for Vertex-Cover, but a result like $1/3$ vs. $o(1)$ hardness for Independent-Set would give factor $3/2 - o(1)$ hardness for Vertex-Cover.
For a long time, the best NP-hardness result like this we knew for Independent-Set came simply from taking Hastad's $1 - \epsilon$ vs. $1/2 + \epsilon$ hardness result for Max-E3Lin and applying the FGLSS reduction to it. You should (easily) check for yourself that this gives $1/4 - \epsilon$ vs. $1/8 + \epsilon$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set. Hence it gives $3/4 + \epsilon$ vs. $7/8 - \epsilon$ NP-hardness for Vertex-Cover; i.e., factor $7/6 + \epsilon$.
In 2002, in the same conference as Khot's Unique Games Conjecture paper, Dinur and Safra published a stronger NP-hardness result for Independent-Set. This was a pretty amazing paper, because the outline of the proof was:
a) Prove a super-weak variant of the Unique Games Conjecture;
b) Do a very difficult Dictator Test based on the combinatorics of $2$-intersecting families.
Part (a), as mentioned, was done contemporaneously with the UGC paper, while part (b) was done before the work on Ek-Independent-Set described in our Lectures 8 and 9.
I like to remember their result as $1/3$ vs. $1/9$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set (omitting the $\epsilon$'s), and hence factor $(8/9)/(2/3) = 4/3$ hardness for Vertex-Cover. In fact, they pushed it a little further. Specifically, for $p = (3 - \sqrt{5})/2$, they showed $p$ vs. $4p^3 - 3p^4$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set. This is, like, .382 vs. .159. This yields factor 1.36 or so NP-hardness for Vertex-Cover.
That stands as the best NP-hardness result known. Relatively soon after the UGC paper, Khot and Regev showed showed that assuming UGC, $1/2 - \epsilon$ vs. $\epsilon$ hardness holds for Min-Independent-Set, and thus factor $2-\epsilon$ hardness for Vertex-Cover. Indeed, they showed UGC-hardness of $1/k - \epsilon$ vs. $\epsilon$ for Min-Ek-Independent-Set.
This is a great hardness factor, but (as they used to say) "the gap is in the wrong place" -- or at least, it's not in the strongest possible place. It is of great interest to try to obtain a hardness result of the form $\Omega(1)$ vs. $o(1)$. This will give a worse "factor", but the result is essentially stronger. Note that we can't hope for $\Omega(1)$ vs. $1/n^{1-\epsilon}$ NP-hardness; Boppana and Halldorsson showed, roughly, that $1/k$ vs. $1/n^{(k-2)/(k-1)}$ is in P (using Ramsey theory) and this was improved by Alon and Kahale to, roughly, $1/k$ vs. $1/n^{(k-2)/(k+1)}$, using the Karger-Motwani-Sudan SDP coloring algorithm.
One reason hardness results like $\Omega(1)$ vs. "small" are better is that they better "factor" hardness for Min-Vertex-Cover. Recall that, trivially, a $c$ vs. $s$ hardness result for Min-Independent-Set is a $1-c$ vs. $1 - s$ hardness result for Max-Vertex-Cover, and thus a $(1-s)/(1-c)$-factor hardness for Max-Vertex-Cover. For example, Hastad's hardness gives only $1+o(1)$ factor hardness for Vertex-Cover, but a result like $1/3$ vs. $o(1)$ hardness for Independent-Set would give factor $3/2 - o(1)$ hardness for Vertex-Cover.
For a long time, the best NP-hardness result like this we knew for Independent-Set came simply from taking Hastad's $1 - \epsilon$ vs. $1/2 + \epsilon$ hardness result for Max-E3Lin and applying the FGLSS reduction to it. You should (easily) check for yourself that this gives $1/4 - \epsilon$ vs. $1/8 + \epsilon$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set. Hence it gives $3/4 + \epsilon$ vs. $7/8 - \epsilon$ NP-hardness for Vertex-Cover; i.e., factor $7/6 + \epsilon$.
In 2002, in the same conference as Khot's Unique Games Conjecture paper, Dinur and Safra published a stronger NP-hardness result for Independent-Set. This was a pretty amazing paper, because the outline of the proof was:
a) Prove a super-weak variant of the Unique Games Conjecture;
b) Do a very difficult Dictator Test based on the combinatorics of $2$-intersecting families.
Part (a), as mentioned, was done contemporaneously with the UGC paper, while part (b) was done before the work on Ek-Independent-Set described in our Lectures 8 and 9.
I like to remember their result as $1/3$ vs. $1/9$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set (omitting the $\epsilon$'s), and hence factor $(8/9)/(2/3) = 4/3$ hardness for Vertex-Cover. In fact, they pushed it a little further. Specifically, for $p = (3 - \sqrt{5})/2$, they showed $p$ vs. $4p^3 - 3p^4$ NP-hardness for Independent-Set. This is, like, .382 vs. .159. This yields factor 1.36 or so NP-hardness for Vertex-Cover.
That stands as the best NP-hardness result known. Relatively soon after the UGC paper, Khot and Regev showed showed that assuming UGC, $1/2 - \epsilon$ vs. $\epsilon$ hardness holds for Min-Independent-Set, and thus factor $2-\epsilon$ hardness for Vertex-Cover. Indeed, they showed UGC-hardness of $1/k - \epsilon$ vs. $\epsilon$ for Min-Ek-Independent-Set.
Homework 5 graded
Homework 5 is graded and will be handed back tomorrow. The average was 79%.
A few comments:
1. Most people got this right (one way or another).
2. For part b), the two equally simplest counterexamples are {$x_1$, $x_1$, $1$}, or {$x_1$, $x_1$, $x_1$}. Aaron, Kanat, and Mike all gave the same, far-from-simplest counterexample. What a coincidence...
3. Many people failed to prove a characterization (if and only if statement) in c), and just gave an implication. Many people also had complicated solutions for the support-3 problem. Ali and Amitabh gave roughly the same solution, which is probably the slickest. Suppose f = a $\chi_S$ + $b \chi_T$ + $c \chi_U$, where the coefficients $a, b, c$ are nonzero and $S$, $T$, $U$ are distinct. By Parseval,
$a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = 1$ (*).
Substituting in $(1, ..., 1)$, we get $a + b + c \in {-1,1}$. Squaring this and subtracting (*) yields
$ab + bc + ac = 0$ (**).
Since $S$, $T$, $U$ are distinct, there must be an index $i$ which is in exactly 1 or 2 of them. Substituting in the string which is 1 everywhere except that it's $-1$ on the $i$th coordinate, we conclude $\sigma_1 a + \sigma_2 b + \sigma_3 c \in {-1,1}$, where exactly 1 or 2 of the signs $\sigma_i$ are $-1$. Squaring this and subtracting (*) yields
$\tau_1 ab + \tau_2 bc + \tau_3 ac = 0$ (***),
where exactly two of the signs $\tau_i$ are $-1$. Now add (**) and (***) and conclude that one of $ab$, $bc$, or $ac$ must equal 0, a contradiction.
4. Most people got (a) and (b). For (c), several people estimated the degree-1 Fourier coefficients of Majority and concluded that it's, say, $(1/n, 1/2)$-quasirandom. Only Eric truly ventured to high degree, pointing out that $Inf_i(Maj)$ can be seen to be $\Theta(1/\sqrt{n})$, and therefore by 5a, Maj is $(\Theta(1/\sqrt{n}),0)$-quasirandom. In fact, one can show that the largest Fourier coefficients for Maj are the ones at level $1$, and hence Maj is $(1/n, 0)$-quasirandom.
5. Most people more or less got this.
6. Most people mostly got this; the key in b) is picking the right diameter.
7. Most people got this too, although many failed to do both parts of f).
A few comments:
1. Most people got this right (one way or another).
2. For part b), the two equally simplest counterexamples are {$x_1$, $x_1$, $1$}, or {$x_1$, $x_1$, $x_1$}. Aaron, Kanat, and Mike all gave the same, far-from-simplest counterexample. What a coincidence...
3. Many people failed to prove a characterization (if and only if statement) in c), and just gave an implication. Many people also had complicated solutions for the support-3 problem. Ali and Amitabh gave roughly the same solution, which is probably the slickest. Suppose f = a $\chi_S$ + $b \chi_T$ + $c \chi_U$, where the coefficients $a, b, c$ are nonzero and $S$, $T$, $U$ are distinct. By Parseval,
$a^2 + b^2 + c^2 = 1$ (*).
Substituting in $(1, ..., 1)$, we get $a + b + c \in {-1,1}$. Squaring this and subtracting (*) yields
$ab + bc + ac = 0$ (**).
Since $S$, $T$, $U$ are distinct, there must be an index $i$ which is in exactly 1 or 2 of them. Substituting in the string which is 1 everywhere except that it's $-1$ on the $i$th coordinate, we conclude $\sigma_1 a + \sigma_2 b + \sigma_3 c \in {-1,1}$, where exactly 1 or 2 of the signs $\sigma_i$ are $-1$. Squaring this and subtracting (*) yields
$\tau_1 ab + \tau_2 bc + \tau_3 ac = 0$ (***),
where exactly two of the signs $\tau_i$ are $-1$. Now add (**) and (***) and conclude that one of $ab$, $bc$, or $ac$ must equal 0, a contradiction.
4. Most people got (a) and (b). For (c), several people estimated the degree-1 Fourier coefficients of Majority and concluded that it's, say, $(1/n, 1/2)$-quasirandom. Only Eric truly ventured to high degree, pointing out that $Inf_i(Maj)$ can be seen to be $\Theta(1/\sqrt{n})$, and therefore by 5a, Maj is $(\Theta(1/\sqrt{n}),0)$-quasirandom. In fact, one can show that the largest Fourier coefficients for Maj are the ones at level $1$, and hence Maj is $(1/n, 0)$-quasirandom.
5. Most people more or less got this.
6. Most people mostly got this; the key in b) is picking the right diameter.
7. Most people got this too, although many failed to do both parts of f).
Tuesday, April 15, 2008
Monday, April 14, 2008
Lecture 24: UGC-Hardness of Max-Cut
The completion of the proof of the reduction from Unique Label-Cover to Max-Cut can be found here.
Thursday, April 3, 2008
Monday, March 31, 2008
Hwk 5 clarifications
HW5 has been extended to Thursday Apr 3rd. Here are some typos to watch out for ---
- Q6, the demands are all integers.
- Q7e, it should be $\epsilon/\log n$, and not $\epsilon \log n$.
Tomorrow's class
Saturday, March 29, 2008
Monday, March 24, 2008
Prep for lecture tomorrow: recap Lecture 18
For tomorrow's lecture (#19), please recall the definition of metrics embedding into trees (problem #6 from HW4). Also, have a look at the correctness proof for low-diameter decompositions posted on Thursday, and try to prove the following extension of that result:
Extension: For a vertex $v$ and radius $r$, let $B(v,r) = \{ w | d_{vw} \leq r\}$ be the "ball" of all vertices within distance $r$ to $v$. Extend the proof from Lecture 16 to show that the probability of an edge $(u,v)$ being cut is at most
Extension: For a vertex $v$ and radius $r$, let $B(v,r) = \{ w | d_{vw} \leq r\}$ be the "ball" of all vertices within distance $r$ to $v$. Extend the proof from Lecture 16 to show that the probability of an edge $(u,v)$ being cut is at most
$O(1) \times (d_{uv} / r) \times \log (|B(u,2r)| / |B(u,r/4)|)$.
(Hint: The previous proof sums $1/j$ for all $j$ from $1$ to $n$ to get $H_n$. Can you show it suffices to sum over a smaller range? You may also want to consider cases depending whether or not $d_{uv}$ is at least $r/4$.)
(Hint: The previous proof sums $1/j$ for all $j$ from $1$ to $n$ to get $H_n$. Can you show it suffices to sum over a smaller range? You may also want to consider cases depending whether or not $d_{uv}$ is at least $r/4$.)
Friday, March 21, 2008
Thursday, March 20, 2008
Lecture 18: Last bits of the proof
Recall the low-diameter decomposition procedure: we picked a random radius $X$ and a random permutation $\pi$. We then constructed the random partition by considering all the vertices one by one, in the order given by $\pi$: when considering $w$, we assigned all the yet-unassigned vertices $v$ with $d(w,v) \leq X$ to $w$'s partition.
Just for the analysis: suppose we renumber the vertices $w_1, w_2, \dots, w_n$ in order of their distance from the edge $e = (u,v)$.
The crucial definitions (that avoid pain later) are the following:
Consider $w_j$ and let its distance $d(w_j,u) = a_j$ and $d(w_j, v) = b_j$. Assume $a_j < b_j$, the other case is identical. If $w_j$ cuts $(u,v)$ when the random values are $X$ and $\pi$, the following two properties must hold:
Just for the analysis: suppose we renumber the vertices $w_1, w_2, \dots, w_n$ in order of their distance from the edge $e = (u,v)$.
The crucial definitions (that avoid pain later) are the following:
- At some time instant in this procedure, one (or both) of $u$ or $v$ gets assigned to some $w_i$. Say that $w_i$ settles the edge $(u,v)$.
- At the moment the edge is settled, if only one endpoint of this edge gets assigned, then we say that $w_i$ cuts the edge $(u,v)$.
Consider $w_j$ and let its distance $d(w_j,u) = a_j$ and $d(w_j, v) = b_j$. Assume $a_j < b_j$, the other case is identical. If $w_j$ cuts $(u,v)$ when the random values are $X$ and $\pi$, the following two properties must hold:
- The random variable $X$ must lie in the interval $[a_j, b_j]$ (else either none or both of $(u,v)$ would get marked).
- The node $w_j$ must come before $w_1, ..., w_{j-1}$ in the permutation $\pi$.
Suppose not, and one of them came before $w_j$ in the permutation. Since all these vertices are closer to the edge than $w_j$ is, then for the current value of $X$, they would have settle the edge (either capture one or both of the endpoints) at some previous time point, and hence $w_j$ would not settle---and hence not cut---the edge $(u,v)$.
Sunday, March 16, 2008
Homework 4, problem 2b comment
Just show you can get a gap at least this bad. (In other words, although you will need to construct a good SDP solution for $C_5$, you need not prove it is optimal. Unless you want to. Say, by using duality.)
Homework 3 graded
I'll return them on Tuesday. The average was 79%. Some comments:
1a) Several people erroneously claimed a log*|D| approximation here. (In fact, no factor approximation is possible.) The reason the AKC algorithm does not work is as follows: Assume we have correctly guessed R = Opt. At first, we indeed know that there k vertices which R-cover all of D. So the first Set-Cover approximation returns some set of vertices A R-covering D. But now, we do not know that there are k vertices which R-cover A. So we are stuck.
2. This was surprisingly not done so well. Most people seemed to get the key point that ($c_0$, $s_0$) hardness implies hardness along the two line segments (in your diagram) joining this point to (1,1) and to (0,0). But people seemed to have a very hard time deducing the easy region (due to the Vertex-Cover algorithm), which is the triangle with vertices (1,1), (1, 0), and (1-1/k, 0).
3. Most everybody got this one, except for failing to point out in part b the simple but key fact that the reduction preserves Opt = 1.
4. As mentioned earlier, this question was kind of screwed up. In honor of that, everyone received 3 bonus points. Mainly, we just wanted you to revisit the Max-Coverage proof, pay attention to the parameters, and see how the parameters from #3 fit in.
5. Almost no one tried this, although it is not too hard.
6. Most people who tried this more or less got it, although some failed to argue why shifting preserves the weight of the set. For a solution, see the original paper.
1a) Several people erroneously claimed a log*|D| approximation here. (In fact, no factor approximation is possible.) The reason the AKC algorithm does not work is as follows: Assume we have correctly guessed R = Opt. At first, we indeed know that there k vertices which R-cover all of D. So the first Set-Cover approximation returns some set of vertices A R-covering D. But now, we do not know that there are k vertices which R-cover A. So we are stuck.
2. This was surprisingly not done so well. Most people seemed to get the key point that ($c_0$, $s_0$) hardness implies hardness along the two line segments (in your diagram) joining this point to (1,1) and to (0,0). But people seemed to have a very hard time deducing the easy region (due to the Vertex-Cover algorithm), which is the triangle with vertices (1,1), (1, 0), and (1-1/k, 0).
3. Most everybody got this one, except for failing to point out in part b the simple but key fact that the reduction preserves Opt = 1.
4. As mentioned earlier, this question was kind of screwed up. In honor of that, everyone received 3 bonus points. Mainly, we just wanted you to revisit the Max-Coverage proof, pay attention to the parameters, and see how the parameters from #3 fit in.
5. Almost no one tried this, although it is not too hard.
6. Most people who tried this more or less got it, although some failed to argue why shifting preserves the weight of the set. For a solution, see the original paper.
Mathematical odds and sods for SDP
Hello all, hope you had a good spring break. Scribe notes for the last two lectures are up. Sorry for the delay; my fault, not the scribes'.
I thought I would record here a few small mathematical facts that came up in our lectures on SDP algorithms for Max-Cut and Coloring.
The GW constant: Recall the GW constant,
$\alpha := min_{-1 \leq \rho \leq 1} [\arccos(\rho)/\pi]/[1/2 - \rho/2]$.
Using calculus and some trigonometric substitutions, you can determine that $\alpha = 2/(\pi sin \theta)$, where $\theta$ is the positive solution of $\theta = \tan(\theta/2)$. As far as I know, it is not known if $\alpha$ is irrational, although presumably it is transcendental.
Gaussians: Remember that a real random variable X has the "standard Gaussian (normal) distribution" if its pdf is $\phi(x) := (1/\sqrt{2\pi}) \exp(-x^2/2)$. The annoying thing about this pdf is that it does not have a closed-form integrals although several closely related expressions do. For example, $x\phi(x)$ has $-\phi(x)$ as an antiderivative. It's easy to check that E[$X^k$] = 0 whenever $k$ is an odd positive integer, and with enough integration-by-parts effort you can check that E[$X^k]= (k-1)(k-3) \cdot \cdot \cdot 3 \cdot 1$ whenever $k$ is an even positive integer. In particular, X has mean 0 and variance 1.
In class we were particularly interested in the "tail", $\mathcal{N}(t) := $ Pr[X $\geq t$] $= \int_{t}^\infty \phi(x) dx$, where $t$ is positive. Here is how to accurately estimate this quantity:
For an upper bound, just insert a factor of $x/t$ into the integrand, which is always at least $1$ on the range. Then you can immediately integrate and get the upper bound
$\mathcal{N}(t) \leq (1/t) \phi(t)$.
For a lower bound, you need a cleverer trick. Insert a factor of $1 - 3/x^4$ into the integral (!), which is always less than $1$. You can check that the resulting quantity, $(1-3/x^4)\phi(x)$ has an explicit antiderivative: $(1/x^3 - 1/x)\phi(x)$. Thus you can conclude
$\mathcal{N}(t) \geq (1/t - 1/t^3) \phi(t)$.
(I think this trick is due to Feller.) Thus we have excellent bounds for $\mathcal{N}(t)$ for large $t$: in particular,
$\mathcal{N}(t) \sim (1/t) \phi(t)$
as mentioned in class.
How to draw a Gaussian random variable: In practice, just use "randn" in Matlab :) In theory, suppose you have access to an oracle which gives you a uniform real from the interval [0,1]. Then the easiest thing is to draw two random numbers S and $\theta$ from [0,1] and then set g = $\sqrt{\ln(1/s)} \cos(2\pi \theta)$, h = $\sqrt{\ln(1/s)} \sin(2\pi \theta)$. Then g and h are two independent Gaussians! (This is the "Box-Muller Transformation".) It is a nice exercise to see why this is true.
Of course, in practice in theory (if you will), the usual model of randomness is to assume you have random bits. Also, of course, you can't compute ln, cos, sin, $\pi$, etc. to arbitrary precision. So in reality, you need to make some approximations.
Just as with the issue of solving SDPs exactly, these approximations introduce additive errors of $\epsilon$, with running time overhead of polylog($1/\epsilon$). And just as with the SDP-solving issue, we will try to never speak of such annoying details again :)
I thought I would record here a few small mathematical facts that came up in our lectures on SDP algorithms for Max-Cut and Coloring.
The GW constant: Recall the GW constant,
$\alpha := min_{-1 \leq \rho \leq 1} [\arccos(\rho)/\pi]/[1/2 - \rho/2]$.
Using calculus and some trigonometric substitutions, you can determine that $\alpha = 2/(\pi sin \theta)$, where $\theta$ is the positive solution of $\theta = \tan(\theta/2)$. As far as I know, it is not known if $\alpha$ is irrational, although presumably it is transcendental.
Gaussians: Remember that a real random variable X has the "standard Gaussian (normal) distribution" if its pdf is $\phi(x) := (1/\sqrt{2\pi}) \exp(-x^2/2)$. The annoying thing about this pdf is that it does not have a closed-form integrals although several closely related expressions do. For example, $x\phi(x)$ has $-\phi(x)$ as an antiderivative. It's easy to check that E[$X^k$] = 0 whenever $k$ is an odd positive integer, and with enough integration-by-parts effort you can check that E[$X^k]= (k-1)(k-3) \cdot \cdot \cdot 3 \cdot 1$ whenever $k$ is an even positive integer. In particular, X has mean 0 and variance 1.
In class we were particularly interested in the "tail", $\mathcal{N}(t) := $ Pr[X $\geq t$] $= \int_{t}^\infty \phi(x) dx$, where $t$ is positive. Here is how to accurately estimate this quantity:
For an upper bound, just insert a factor of $x/t$ into the integrand, which is always at least $1$ on the range. Then you can immediately integrate and get the upper bound
$\mathcal{N}(t) \leq (1/t) \phi(t)$.
For a lower bound, you need a cleverer trick. Insert a factor of $1 - 3/x^4$ into the integral (!), which is always less than $1$. You can check that the resulting quantity, $(1-3/x^4)\phi(x)$ has an explicit antiderivative: $(1/x^3 - 1/x)\phi(x)$. Thus you can conclude
$\mathcal{N}(t) \geq (1/t - 1/t^3) \phi(t)$.
(I think this trick is due to Feller.) Thus we have excellent bounds for $\mathcal{N}(t)$ for large $t$: in particular,
$\mathcal{N}(t) \sim (1/t) \phi(t)$
as mentioned in class.
How to draw a Gaussian random variable: In practice, just use "randn" in Matlab :) In theory, suppose you have access to an oracle which gives you a uniform real from the interval [0,1]. Then the easiest thing is to draw two random numbers S and $\theta$ from [0,1] and then set g = $\sqrt{\ln(1/s)} \cos(2\pi \theta)$, h = $\sqrt{\ln(1/s)} \sin(2\pi \theta)$. Then g and h are two independent Gaussians! (This is the "Box-Muller Transformation".) It is a nice exercise to see why this is true.
Of course, in practice in theory (if you will), the usual model of randomness is to assume you have random bits. Also, of course, you can't compute ln, cos, sin, $\pi$, etc. to arbitrary precision. So in reality, you need to make some approximations.
Just as with the issue of solving SDPs exactly, these approximations introduce additive errors of $\epsilon$, with running time overhead of polylog($1/\epsilon$). And just as with the SDP-solving issue, we will try to never speak of such annoying details again :)
Compendium of approximability
[somehow I deleted the original of this posting...]
This site, by Pierluigi Crescenzi and Viggo Kann describes the best known approximation guarantees and inapproximability results for a very large number of problems.
It's quite out of date, but still a useful resource.
This site, by Pierluigi Crescenzi and Viggo Kann describes the best known approximation guarantees and inapproximability results for a very large number of problems.
It's quite out of date, but still a useful resource.
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